breganzane
Hero member
- Location
- NSW Australia
Sounds like dud chinese gauges perhaps. Imagine how it works - there's a driving pressure P1 and a calibrated leak across a small orifice, giving you a pressure in the second part of the instrument / cylinder P2. If leakage = 0 then P2 = P1 and you have zero leakdown. If leakage is infinite, P2 = 0 and you have 100% leakage.
The flow across the orifice should be more or less matched to the cylinder leakage at the driving pressure (eg 60psi) to give it sensible reading on the second gauge.
I would take both gauges off and put them on a common manifold and see if they read the same. Also check orifice between the two chambers, it is usually somewhere around 1mm.
Your instrument had a schraeder valve added to the nozzle so who knows what they were on when they made it!
I could not get any sensible results out of mine till I replaced both gauges and the reg with decent quality ones from SMC.
The flow across the orifice should be more or less matched to the cylinder leakage at the driving pressure (eg 60psi) to give it sensible reading on the second gauge.
I would take both gauges off and put them on a common manifold and see if they read the same. Also check orifice between the two chambers, it is usually somewhere around 1mm.
Your instrument had a schraeder valve added to the nozzle so who knows what they were on when they made it!
I could not get any sensible results out of mine till I replaced both gauges and the reg with decent quality ones from SMC.